[2025] 100-160 Exam Dumps, Test Engine Practice Test Questions
Pass 100-160 exam [Dec 11, 2025] Updated 360 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 202
Which security feature provides network segmentation by creating virtual networks?
- A. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
- B. VLANs
- C. VLANs
- D. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option 1: Correct, VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) provide network segmentation by creating virtual networks, allowing different groups of devices to be logically separated on the same physical network.
Option 2: Incorrect, Firewalls are designed to monitor and filter network traffic based on predetermined security rules, but they do not provide network segmentation by creating virtual networks.
Option 3: Incorrect, An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is a security appliance or software that monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and takes action to prevent potential threats, but it does not provide network segmentation by creating virtual networks.
Option 4: Incorrect, A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure tunnel between two or more devices, typically used to connect remote sites or allow remote users to access the private network. It does not provide network segmentation by creating virtual networks.
NEW QUESTION # 203
Which endpoint security mechanism is used to secure data transmitted between the endpoint and the network?
- A. Encryption
- B. Firewall
- C. Antivirus
- D. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Encryption is the mechanism used to secure data transmitted between the endpoint and the network. By encrypting the data, it becomes unreadable to unauthorized parties, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the information being transmitted. Encryption transforms the data into a ciphertext, which can only be decrypted back into its original form using the proper encryption key. This helps protect sensitive and confidential data from interception and unauthorized access during transmission over the network.
NEW QUESTION # 204
Which of the following is an example of a network vulnerability?
- A. Running outdated and unpatched software
- B. Implementing a firewall
- C. Using a strong password
- D. Encrypting sensitive data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Running outdated and unpatched software is an example of a network vulnerability. Software updates often include patches to fix security vulnerabilities that have been discovered. Failing to install these updates or using outdated software increases the risk of an attacker exploiting known vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access or compromise the network.
NEW QUESTION # 205
Which of the following best defines "Techniques, Tactics, and Procedures (TTP)" in the context of cybersecurity investigations?
- A. A set of guidelines for securing network devices.
- B. An organized digital evidence collection process.
- C. A framework for analyzing network traffic.
- D. A pattern of behavior adopted by threat actors.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Techniques, Tactics, and Procedures (TTP) refer to the methods and strategies used by threat actors in cyber-attacks. TTPs encompass various aspects such as the tools and techniques employed, the patterns of behavior exhibited, and the procedures followed by attackers during their malicious activities. By understanding TTPs, cybersecurity professionals can better identify and defend against threats.
NEW QUESTION # 206
Which technology is commonly used to monitor network data and identify security incidents?
- A. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response)
- B. Firewall
- C. IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
- D. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
Answer: D
Explanation:
SIEM is a technology that focuses on monitoring network data to identify security incidents. It collects and analyzes security event logs from various sources, such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS), and antivirus software, to identify abnormal behavior or potential security incidents. SIEM solutions provide real-time monitoring, correlation, and alerting capabilities, enabling organizations to effectively detect and respond to security threats.
NEW QUESTION # 207
Which of the following is a benefit of utilizing automated threat intelligence within a cybersecurity system?
- A. Reduced false positives
- B. Increased vulnerability detection
- C. Improved incident response time
- D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Automated threat intelligence systems gather and analyze vast amounts of data to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities. By utilizing these systems, organizations can benefit from reduced false positives, increased vulnerability detection, and improved incident response time. This comprehensive approach enhances the overall effectiveness of a cybersecurity system.
NEW QUESTION # 208
What is the main benefit of implementing SOAR technology in monitoring network data for security incidents?
- A. Reduced network bandwidth consumption
- B. Enhanced network performance
- C. Improved incident response time
- D. Increased network availability
Answer: C
Explanation:
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) technology aims to streamline and automate incident response processes. By integrating various security tools, SOAR enables a faster and more organized response to security incidents. It automates manual tasks, provides real-time incident metrics and visibility, and facilitates collaboration among different teams involved in incident response. Ultimately, implementing SOAR can significantly improve incident response time.
NEW QUESTION # 209
Which command-line tool is commonly used to test network connectivity and measure response time?
- A. nslookup
- B. netstat
- C. ping
- D. tcpdump
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct command-line tool for testing network connectivity and measuring response time is ping. It sends ICMP echo request packets to a specified network device or IP address and waits for the corresponding echo reply, helping to verify if a host is reachable and measure packet latency. However, it is important to note that although ping can provide some basic network testing, it does not capture traffic or packet contents like tcpdump.
NEW QUESTION # 210
What is ransomware?
- A. Malicious software that encrypts files on a victim's computer and demands ransom for their release.
- B. A form of cyber attack that attempts to gain unauthorized access to a network.
- C. A technique used by attackers to obtain sensitive information through deception.
- D. A software program that is designed to damage, disrupt, or gain unauthorized access to a computer system.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts files on a victim's computer or network and then demands a ransom payment in exchange for the decryption key. It is a form of extortion and can cause significant damage and disruption to individuals and organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 211
Which encryption method uses two different keys, a public key and a private key?
- A. SSL/TLS
- B. Hashing
- C. Symmetric encryption
- D. Asymmetric encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Asymmetric encryption, also known as public-key encryption, uses two different keys: a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public key can be freely distributed, allowing anyone to encrypt messages that only the recipient with the corresponding private key can decrypt. This method is commonly used for secure communication and establishing secure connections.
NEW QUESTION # 212
Which of the following is a common proactive measure for managing vulnerabilities?
- A. Conducting vulnerability assessments
- B. Implementing data encryption
- C. Performing regular system backups
- D. Regularly updating antivirus signatures
Answer: A
Explanation:
Conducting vulnerability assessments is a proactive measure for managing vulnerabilities. It involves regularly scanning the system or network for vulnerabilities, identifying weaknesses, and prioritizing remediation efforts. By proactively assessing and identifying vulnerabilities, organizations can take necessary actions to mitigate risks and prevent potential exploitation.
NEW QUESTION # 213
What should be done when a user forgets their password and requests a reset?
- A. Escalate the request to the user's supervisor for approval.
- B. Verify the user's identity and follow the organization's password reset process.
- C. Inform the user that password resets are not allowed for security reasons.
- D. Reset the password immediately without any further action.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a user forgets their password and requests a reset, it is necessary to verify the user's identity and follow the organization's established password reset process. Password resets may involve sensitive information and can lead to unauthorized access if not handled appropriately. Therefore, following the organization's procedures helps ensure the security and integrity of the password reset process.
NEW QUESTION # 214
Which of the following is a common security threat that targets web applications?
- A. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
- B. SQL injection
- C. Man-in-the-middle attack
- D. DNS poisoning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option 1: Correct: SQL injection is a common security threat that targets web applications. It involves inserting malicious SQL code into input fields to manipulate the application's database and gain unauthorized access or retrieve sensitive information.
Option 2: Incorrect: DNS poisoning is not a common security threat that targets web applications. It involves corrupting the DNS cache and redirecting users to malicious websites.
Option 3: Incorrect: Man-in-the-middle attack is not a common security threat that specifically targets web applications. It involves intercepting communication between two parties and can affect various types of network communication.
Option 4: Incorrect: Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) is not a common security threat that targets web applications specifically. It involves overwhelming a target system with a flood of traffic from multiple sources, rendering it inaccessible.
NEW QUESTION # 215
What does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) do in endpoint security?
- A. Prevents unauthorized access to the endpoint
- B. Encrypts the data transmitted between the endpoint and the network
- C. Detects and alerts on suspicious activities on the endpoint
- D. Identifies and blocks malware on the endpoint
Answer: C
Explanation:
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is designed to detect and alert on suspicious activities that may indicate a security breach or an attack on the endpoint. IDS monitors various aspects of the endpoint, such as network traffic, system logs, and behavior patterns, to identify potential threats and security incidents. When suspicious activities are detected, the IDS generates alerts that can be used by security personnel to investigate and respond to the potential threats.
NEW QUESTION # 216
Which compliance framework is designed to safeguard protected health information (PHI) and ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability?
- A. HIPAA
- B. PCI-DSS
- C. FISMA
- D. GDPR
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is a compliance framework that focuses on protecting protected health information (PHI) used in the healthcare industry. HIPAA ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of PHI and sets standards for the security and privacy of this sensitive information.
NEW QUESTION # 217
Your company is creating a BYOD policy to allow employees to join their personal smartphones to the company network.
Which three requirements are commonly included in a BYOD policy? (Choose 3.)
- A. Upgrade of data plan to maximum available
- B. Encryption of stored confidential corporate data
- C. Installation of secure apps only
- D. Deletion of all personal data from the phone
- E. Synchronization of phone lock screen password with network access password
- F. Configuration of a strong password
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide explains that a BYOD policy (Bring Your Own Device) should outline security requirements for personally owned devices connecting to the corporate network. Common requirements include:
Device encryption for stored sensitive corporate data.
Strong password or PIN configuration for device access.
Restriction to secure and approved applications to reduce malware risk.
"BYOD policies typically mandate strong authentication, encryption of sensitive corporate data on personal devices, and installation of secure or approved applications. The goal is to protect corporate information while respecting personal ownership of the device." (CCST Cybersecurity, Endpoint Security Concepts, BYOD Security section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is incorrect: BYOD policies do not require deletion of personal data unless wiping after separation.
B is not a common requirement due to privacy and technical limitations.
E (upgrading data plans) is unrelated to security.
NEW QUESTION # 218
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