[Dec 27, 2024] Valid 220-1102 Test Answers & 220-1102 Exam PDF
Valid A+ 220-1102 Dumps Ensure Your Passing
NEW QUESTION # 115
A hotel's Wi-Fi was used to steal information on a corporate laptop. A technician notes the following security log:
SRC: 192.168.1.1/secrets.zip Protocol SMB >> DST: 192.168.1.50/capture
The technician analyses the following Windows firewall information:
Which of the following protocols most likely allowed the data theft to occur?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
The protocol that most likely allowed the data theft to occur is SMB over TCP port 445. SMB is a network file sharing protocol that enables access to files, printers, and other resources on a network. Port 445 is used by SMB to communicate directly over TCP without the need for NetBIOS, which is an older and less secure protocol. The security log shows that the source IP address 192.168.1.1 sent a file named secrets.zip using SMB protocol to the destination IP address 192.168.1.50, which captured the file. The Windows firewall information shows that port 445 is enabled for inbound and outbound traffic, which means that it is not blocked by the firewall. Therefore, port 445 is the most likely port that was exploited by the attacker to steal the data from the corporate laptop.
References:
* SMB port number: Ports 445, 139, 138, and 137 explained1
* What is an SMB Port + Ports 445 and 139 Explained2
* CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives3
NEW QUESTION # 116
A technician is installing new network equipment in a SOHO and wants to ensure the equipment is secured against external threats on the Internet. Which of the following actions should the technician do FIRST?
- A. Install the latest operating system and patches
- B. Change the default administrative password.
- C. Lock all devices in a closet.
- D. Ensure all devices are from the same manufacturer.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 117
A computer technician is investigating a computer that is not booting. The user reports that the computer was working prior to shutting it down last night. The technician notices a removable USB device is inserted, and the user explains the device is a prize the user received in the mail yesterday. Which of the following types of attacks does this describe?
- A. Phishing
- B. Evil twin
- C. Dumpster diving
- D. Tailgating
Answer: B
Explanation:
Phishing is the correct answer for this question. Phishing is a type of attack that uses fraudulent emails or other messages to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malicious software. Phishing emails often impersonate legitimate entities or individuals and offer incentives or threats to lure users into clicking on malicious links or attachments. In this scenario, the user received a removable USB device in the mail as a prize, which could be a phishing attempt to infect the user's computer with malware or gain access to the user's data. Dumpster diving, tailgating, and evil twin are not correct answers for this question.
Dumpster diving is a type of attack that involves searching through trash bins or recycling containers to find discarded documents or devices that contain valuable information. Tailgating is a type of attack that involves following an authorized person into a restricted area without proper identification or authorization. Evil twin is a type of attack that involves setting up a rogue wireless access point that mimics a legitimate one to intercept or manipulate network traffic. References:
* Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 25
* [CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide], page 1004
NEW QUESTION # 118
A company's assets are scanned annually. Which of the following will most likely help the company gain a holistic view of asset cost?
- A. Updating the procurement account owners
- B. Creating a database
- C. Inventorying asset tags
- D. Assigning users to assets
Answer: B
Explanation:
Creating a database is the most likely option to help the company gain a holistic view of asset cost. A database can store and organize information about the assets, such as purchase date, depreciation value, maintenance cost, warranty status, and replacement cost. Assigning users to assets, inventorying asset tags, and updating the procurement account owners are important steps for asset management, but they do not directly provide a holistic view of asset cost. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 18 CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam ..., page 101
NEW QUESTION # 119
A kiosk, which is running Microsoft Windows 10, relies exclusively on a numeric keypad to allow customers to enter their ticket numbers but no other information. If the kiosk is idle for four hours, the login screen locks. Which of the following sign-on options would allow any employee the ability to unlock the kiosk?
- A. Using a PIN and providing it to employees
- B. Requiring employees to enter their usernames and passwords
- C. Requiring employees to use their fingerprints
- D. Setting up facial recognition for each employee
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best sign-on option that would allow any employee the ability to unlock the kiosk that relies exclusively on a numeric keypad is to use a PIN and provide it to employees. A PIN is a Personal Identification Number that is a numeric code that can be used as part of authentication or access control. A PIN can be entered using only a numeric keypad and can be easily shared with employees who need to unlock the kiosk. Requiring employees to enter their usernames and passwords may not be feasible or convenient if the kiosk only has a numeric keypad and no other input devices. Setting up facial recognition for each employee may not be possible or secure if the kiosk does not have a camera or biometric sensor. Requiring employees to use their fingerprints may not be possible or secure if the kiosk does not have a fingerprint scanner or biometric sensor. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 3.3
NEW QUESTION # 120
When a user is in the office, the user's mobile phone loads applications and web browses very slowly on a cellular connection. Which of the following is the best way to fix this issue?
* Connect to the company's Wi-Fi network.
- A. Update all applications on the phone.
- B. Install a cellular repeater at the office for this user.
- C. Change the settings on the phone to connect to a different cellular tower.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way to fix the issue of slow cellular connection in the office is to connect to the company's Wi-Fi network. This will allow the user's mobile phone to access the internet through a faster and more reliable wireless network, instead of relying on the cellular network. Connecting to the Wi-Fi network will also save the user's data usage and battery life.
Some of the factors that can affect the cellular connection speed are the distance from the cell tower, the obstructions between the phone and the tower, the network congestion, the network technology, and the features of the phone12. In the office, the user may experience a weak or unstable cellular signal due to the building structure, the location, or the interference from other devices. Therefore, switching to the Wi-Fi network can improve the performance of the phone's applications and web browsing.
References:
* CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives3
* CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide4
* Factors affecting the speed and quality of internet connection1
* Why Is Your Mobile Data So Slow? How to Speed It Up in 10 Steps2
NEW QUESTION # 121
A technician installed Windows 10 on a workstation. The workstation only has 3.5GB of usable RAM, even though the technician installed 8GB. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason this system is not utilizing all the available RAM?
- A. The system is missing updates.
- B. The system is utilizing a 32-bit OS.
- C. The system requires BIOS updates
- D. The system's memory is failing.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely reason that the system is not utilizing all the available RAM is that the system is utilizing a
32-bit OS. A 32-bit OS is an operating system that uses 32 bits to address memory locations and perform calculations. A 32-bit OS can only support up to 4GB of RAM, and some of that RAM may be reserved for hardware devices or system functions, leaving less than 4GB of usable RAM for applications and processes. A
32-bit OS cannot recognize or utilize more than 4GB of RAM, even if more RAM is installed on the system.
To utilize all the available RAM, the system needs to use a 64-bit OS, which can support much more RAM than a 32-bit OS. The system missing updates may cause some performance or compatibility issues, but it does not affect the amount of usable RAM on the system. The system's memory failing may cause some errors or crashes, but it does not affect the amount of usable RAM on the system. The system requiring BIOS updates may cause some configuration or compatibility issues, but it does not affect the amount of usable RAM on the system. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.1
NEW QUESTION # 122
A technician is working to resolve a Wi-Fi network issue at a doctor's office that is located next to an apartment complex. The technician discovers that employees and patients are not the only people on the network. Which of the following should the technician do to BEST minimize this issue?
- A. Remove the guest network
- B. Add a password to the guest network
- C. Disable unused ports.
- D. Change the network channel.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Changing the network channel is the best solution to minimize the issue of employees and patients not being the only people on the Wi-Fi network5 References: 3. Sample CompTIA Security+ exam questions and answers. Retrieved from https://www.
techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-Security-exam-questions-and-answers
NEW QUESTION # 123
A macOS user is installing a new application. Which of the following system directories is the software MOST likely to install by default?
- A. C:\Program Files
- B. /etc/services
- C. /Applications
- D. /usr/bin
Answer: C
Explanation:
The software is most likely to install by default in the /Applications directory, which is the standard location for macOS applications. This directory can be accessed from the Finder sidebar or by choosing Go > Applications from the menu bar. The /Applications directory contains all the applications that are available to all users on the system1. Some applications might also offer the option to install in the ~/Applications directory, which is a personal applications folder for a single user2. The /etc/services directory is a system configuration file that maps service names to port numbers and protocols3. The /usr/bin directory is a system directory that contains executable binaries for various commands and utilities4. The C:\Program Files directory is a Windows directory that does not exist on macOS.
NEW QUESTION # 124
An IT services company that supports a large government contract replaced the Ethernet cards on several hundred desktop machines to comply With regulatory requirements. Which of the following disposal methods for the non-compliant cards is the MOST environmentally friendly?
- A. Physical destruction
- B. incineration
- C. Resale
- D. Dumpster for recycling plastics
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
When disposing of non-compliant Ethernet cards, the most environmentally friendly option is to use a dumpster for recycling plastics. This method is the most effective way to reduce the amount of waste that is sent to landfills, and it also helps to reduce the amount of energy used in the production of new materials.
Additionally, recycling plastics helps to reduce the amount of toxic chemicals that can be released into the environment.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 2 documents, "The most environmentally friendly disposal method for non-compliant Ethernet cards is to use a dumpster for recycling plastics. This method is the most effective way to reduce the amount of waste that is sent to landfills, and it also helps to reduce the amount of energy used in the production of new materials."
https://sustainability.yale.edu/blog/how-sustainably-dispose-your-technological-waste
NEW QUESTION # 125
A technician is working on a Windows 10 PC that has unwanted applications starting on boot. Which of the following tools should the technician use to disable applications on startup?
- A. Task Manager
- B. Performance Monitor
- C. Group Policy Editor
- D. System Configuration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Task Manager is the best tool to use to disable applications on startup in Windows 10. Task Manager is a built-in utility that shows the current processes, performance, and users on a system. It also has a Startup tab that lists the applications that run on boot and their impact on the system. The technician can use Task Manager to disable or enable any application on startup by right-clicking on it and selecting the appropriate option. System Configuration, Performance Monitor, and Group Policy Editor are other tools that can be used to manage system settings, but they are not as simple or convenient as Task Manager for this task. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 13 CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam ..., page 103
NEW QUESTION # 126
A user reports that after a recent software deployment to upgrade applications, the user can no longer use the Testing program.
However, other employees can successfully use the Testing program.
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer:
Explanation:
Review the information in each tab to verify the results of the deployment and resolve any issues discovered by selecting the:
Index number of the Event Viewer issue
First command to resolve the issue
Second command to resolve the issue
BSOD
Commands:
Event Viewer:
System Error:
Pending
NEW QUESTION # 127
A user requires local administrative access to a workstation. Which of the following Control Panel utilities allows the technician to grant access to the user?
- A. System
- B. Security and Maintenance
- C. User Accounts
- D. Network and Sharing Center
Answer: C
Explanation:
User Accounts is a Control Panel utility that allows the technician to manage user accounts and groups on a local computer. The technician can use this utility to add a user to the local administrators group, which grants the user local administrative access to the workstation. The other options are not relevant for this task.
References: :
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-fs/operations/manage-user-accounts-and-groups
NEW QUESTION # 128
A systems administrator is troubleshooting network performance issues in a large corporate office. The end users report that traffic to certain internal environments is not stable and often drops. Which of the following command-line tools can provide the most detailed information for investigating the issue further?
- A. arp
- B. pathping
- C. nslookup
- D. ipconfig
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pathping is the best command-line tool to provide the most detailed information for investigating the network performance issue further. Pathping is a utility that combines the functions of ping and tracert, which are two other command-line tools that test network connectivity and latency. Pathping sends packets to each router on the path to a destination and then computes results based on the packets returned from each hop. Pathping can show the route taken by the packets, the number of hops, the latency of each hop, and the packet loss percentage. This information can help the systems administrator identify where the network problem occurs and how severe it is. Ipconfig, arp, and nslookup are not as useful as pathping for this task. Ipconfig shows the configuration of the network interface card, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. Arp shows the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses in the local network. Nslookup queries DNS servers for domain name resolution. References:
* Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 21
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 457
NEW QUESTION # 129
A technician is partitioning a hard disk. The five primary partitions should contain 4TB of free space. Which of the following partition styles should the technician use to partition the device?
- A. EFS
- B. FAT32
- C. GPT
- D. MBR
Answer: C
Explanation:
GPT is the correct answer for this question. GPT stands for GUID Partition Table, and it is a partition style that supports up to 128 primary partitions and up to 18 exabytes of disk size per partition. GPT also uses a unique identifier for each partition and provides better data protection and recovery. GPT is suitable for partitioning a hard disk that has five primary partitions with 4TB of free space each. EFS, MBR, and FAT32 are not correct answers for this question. EFS stands for Encrypting File System, and it is a feature that allows encrypting files and folders on NTFS volumes. EFS is not a partition style, but rather a file system attribute. MBR stands for Master Boot Record, and it is an older partition style that supports up to four primary partitions and up to 2TB of disk size per partition. MBR cannot handle five primary partitions with 4TB of free space each. FAT32 stands for File Allocation Table 32, and it is a file system that supports up to 32GB of disk size per partition and up to 4GB of file size. FAT32 is not a partition style, but rather a file system type. Reference:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 14 CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam ..., page 105
NEW QUESTION # 130
An employee calls the help desk regarding an issue with a laptop PC. After a Windows update, the user can no longer use certain locally attached devices, and a reboot has not fixed the issue. Which of the following should the technician perform to fix the issue?
- A. Restore hidden updates.
- B. Check for updates.
- C. Disable the Windows Update service.
- D. Rollback updates.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The technician should perform a rollback of the Windows update that caused the issue with the locally attached devices. A rollback is a process of uninstalling an update and restoring the previous version of the system. This can help to fix any compatibility or performance issues caused by the update1. To rollback an update, the technician can use the Settings app, the Control Panel, or the System Restore feature. The technician should also check for any device driver updates that might be needed after rolling back the update. Disabling the Windows Update service is not a good practice, as it can prevent the system from receiving important security and feature updates. Checking for updates might not fix the issue, as the update that caused the issue might still be installed. Restoring hidden updates is not relevant, as it only applies to updates that have been hidden by the user to prevent them from being installed2.
NEW QUESTION # 131
A user reports that text on the screen is too small. The user would like to make the text larger and easier to see.
Which of the following is the BEST way for the user to increase the size of text, applications, and other items using the Windows 10 Settings tool?
- A. Open Settings select Devices, select Display, and change the display resolution to a lower resolution option
- B. Open Settings select Personalization, select Display and change the Scale and layout setting to a higher percentage
- C. Open Settings Select System, select Display, and change the Scale and layout setting to a higher percentage.
- D. Open Settings, select System, select Display, and change the display resolution to a lower resolution option.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Open Settings, select System, select Display, and change the Scale and layout setting to a higher percentage12
3
NEW QUESTION # 132
A systems administrator is troubleshooting network performance issues in a large corporate office. The end users report that traffic to certain internal environments is not stable and often drops. Which of the following command-line tools can provide the most detailed information for investigating the issue further?
- A. arp
- B. pathping
- C. nslookup
- D. ipconfig
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Pathping is the best command-line tool to provide the most detailed information for investigating the network performance issue further. Pathping is a utility that combines the functions of ping and tracert, which are two other command-line tools that test network connectivity and latency. Pathping sends packets to each router on the path to a destination and then computes results based on the packets returned from each hop. Pathping can show the route taken by the packets, the number of hops, the latency of each hop, and the packet loss percentage. This information can help the systems administrator identify where the network problem occurs and how severe it is. Ipconfig, arp, and nslookup are not as useful as pathping for this task. Ipconfig shows the configuration of the network interface card, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. Arp shows the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses in the local network. Nslookup queries DNS servers for domain name resolution. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 21 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 457
NEW QUESTION # 133
A customer, whose smartphone's screen was recently repaired, reports that the device has no internet access through Wi-Fi. The device shows that it is connected to Wi-Fi, has an address of 192.168.1.42. and has no subnet mask. Which of the following should the technician check next?
- A. Internal antenna connections
- B. Airplane mode
- C. Static IP settings
- D. Digitizer calibration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Given that the smartphone's screen was recently repaired and now experiences issues with Wi-Fi connectivity, despite showing that it is connected to a network, the problem could be related to the internal antenna connections that might have been disturbed or disconnected during the repair process.
* Internal Antenna Connections: Smartphones use internal antennas for Wi-Fi and cellular connections. If these antennas are not properly connected, the device may show as connected to a Wi-Fi network but fail to transmit data effectively, resulting in no internet access.
Checking static IP settings (B) would be relevant if the device were not obtaining an IP address at all, but the device does have an IP address. Airplane mode (C) would prevent the device from connecting to Wi-Fi networks entirely. Digitizer calibration (D) is related to the touchscreen functionality and would not affect Wi- Fi connectivity.
NEW QUESTION # 134
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