[Feb-2024] CompTIA SY0-701 Dumps – Reduce Your Chance of Failure in SY0-701 Exam
To help you achieve your ultimate goal, we suggest the actual CompTIA SY0-701 dumps for your CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam exam preparation to use as your guideline.
NEW QUESTION # 34
A technician needs to apply a high-priority patch to a production system. Which of the following steps should be takenfirst?
- A. Air gap the system.
- B. Move the system to a different network segment.
- C. Create a change control request.
- D. Apply the patch to the system.
Answer: C
Explanation:
= A change control request is a document that describes the proposed change to a system, the reason for the change, the expected impact, the approval process, the testing plan, the implementation plan, the rollback plan, and the communication plan. A change control request is a best practice for applying any patch to a production system, especially a high-priority one, as it ensures that the change is authorized, documented, tested, and communicated. A change control request also minimizes the risk of unintended consequences, such as system downtime, data loss, or security breaches. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 235. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1, page 13.
NEW QUESTION # 35
An employee clicked a link in an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The employee entered the log-in information but received a "page not found" error message.
Which of the following types of social engineering attacks occurred?
- A. Pretexting
- B. Typosquatting
- C. Phishing
- D. Brand impersonation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending fraudulent emails that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as payment websites, banks, or other trusted entities. The goal of phishing is to trick the recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing sensitive information, such as log-in credentials, personal data, or financial details. In this scenario, the employee received an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The email contained a link that directed the employee to a fake website that mimicked the appearance of the real one.
The employee entered the log-in information, but received a "page not found" error message. This indicates that the employee fell victim to a phishing attack, and the attacker may have captured the employee's credentials for the payment website. References = Other Social Engineering Attacks - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.2, CompTIA Security+: Social Engineering Techniques & Other Attack ... - NICCS, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following is a hardware-specific vulnerability?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Buffer overflow
- C. Firmware version
- D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a router, a printer, or a BIOS chip. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and it can be updated or modified by the manufacturer or the user. Firmware version is a hardware-specific vulnerability, as it can expose the device to security risks if it is outdated, corrupted, or tampered with. An attacker can exploit firmware vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, modify device settings, install malware, or cause damage to the device or the network. Therefore, it is important to keep firmware updated and verify its integrity and authenticity. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice TestQuestions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 67. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1, page
10.
NEW QUESTION # 37
An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users' passwords. Which of the following should the administrator implement to prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future?
- A. Password complexity
- B. Permissions assignment
- C. Multifactor authentication
- D. Access management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user's identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user's password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication.
Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user's role or identity. Access management © is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password. References = You can learn more about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1
* Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2
* Multi-factor Authentication - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.43
* TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management, Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4
* CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account Management, Section 2: Enabling Multifactor Authentication5
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following are cases in which an engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device? (Select two).
- A. The device is moved to an isolated segment on the enterprise network.
- B. The device has been moved from a production environment to a test environment.
- C. The device's encryption level cannot meet organizational standards.
- D. The device is moved to a different location in the enterprise.
- E. The device is configured to use cleartext passwords.
- F. The device is unable to receive authorized updates.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device when the device poses a security risk or a compliance violation to the enterprise environment. A device that cannot meet the encryption standards or receive authorized updates is vulnerable to attacks and breaches, and may expose sensitive data or compromise network integrity. Therefore, such a device should be removed from the network and replaced with a more secure and updated one.
References
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2, page 671 CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2, Question 16, page 512
NEW QUESTION # 39
An organization disabled unneeded services and placed a firewall in front of a business-critical legacy system.
Which of the following best describes the actions taken by the organization?
- A. Exception
- B. Compensating controls
- C. Segmentation
- D. Risk transfer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Compensating controls are alternative security measures that are implemented when the primary controls are not feasible, cost-effective, or sufficient to mitigate the risk. In this case, the organization used compensating controls to protect the legacy system from potential attacks by disabling unneeded services and placing a firewall in front of it. This reduced the attack surface and the likelihood of exploitation.
References:
Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 29
Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 1.1 1
NEW QUESTION # 40
A company is concerned about weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime. Which of the following should the company consider?
- A. Clustering servers
- B. Geographic dispersion
- C. Off-site backups
- D. Load balancers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Geographic dispersion is a strategy that involves distributing the servers or data centers across different geographic locations. Geographic dispersion can help the company to mitigate the risk of weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime, as well as improve the availability, performance, and resilience of the network. Geographic dispersion can also enhance the disaster recovery and business continuity capabilities of the company, as it can provide backup and failover options in case of a regional outage or disruption12.
The other options are not the best ways to address the company's concern:
Clustering servers: This is a technique that involves grouping multiple servers together to act as a single system. Clustering servers can help to improve the performance, scalability, and fault tolerance of the network, but it does not protect the servers from physical damage or downtime caused by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building3.
Load balancers: These are devices or software that distribute the network traffic or workload among multiple servers or resources. Load balancers can help to optimize the utilization,efficiency, and reliability of the network, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building4.
Off-site backups: These are copies of data or files that are stored in a different location than the original source. Off-site backups can help to protect the data from being lost or corrupted by weather events, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, nor do they ensure the availability or continuity of the network services.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 3.4, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 CertificationStudy Guide, page 984: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. :
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure.
Which of the following data classifications should be used to secure patient data?
- A. Public
- B. Critical
- C. Sensitive
- D. Private
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four-tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical.
Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages.
Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of private data include employee records, financial reports, and internal policies.
Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include personal information, health records, and intellectual property.
Critical data is data that is essential for the organization's operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups.
Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 - Data Classifications, 0:00 - 4:30.
NEW QUESTION # 42
After a recent vulnerability scan, a security engineer needs to harden the routers within the corporate network.
Which of the following is the most appropriate to disable?
- A. VLANs
- B. Console access
- C. Web-based administration
- D. Routing protocols
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Web-based administration is a feature that allows users to configure and manage routers through a web browser interface. While this feature can provide convenience and ease of use, it can also pose a security risk, especially if the web interface is exposed to the internet or uses weak authentication or encryption methods.
Web-based administration can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the router's settings, firmware, or data, or to launch attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) or cross-site request forgery (CSRF).
Therefore, disabling web-based administration is a good practice to harden the routers within the corporate network. Console access, routing protocols, and VLANs are other features that can be configured on routers, but they are not the most appropriate to disable for hardening purposes. Console access is a physical connection to the router that requires direct access to the device, which can be secured by locking the router in a cabinet or using a strong password. Routing protocols are essential for routers to exchange routing information and maintain network connectivity, and they can be secured by using authentication or encryption mechanisms. VLANs are logical segments of a network that can enhance network performance and security by isolating traffic and devices, and they can be secured by using VLAN access control lists (VACLs) or private VLANs (PVLANs). References: CCNA SEC: Router Hardening Your Router's Security Stinks: Here's How to Fix It
NEW QUESTION # 43
A systems administrator is creating a script that would save time and prevent human error when performing account creation for a large number of end users. Which of the following would be a good use case for this task?
- A. Orchestration
- B. Policy enforcement
- C. Baseline
- D. Off-the-shelf software
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Orchestration is the process of automating multiple tasks across different systems and applications. It can help save time and reduce human error by executing predefined workflows and scripts. In this case, the systems administrator can use orchestration to create accounts for a large number of end users without having to manually enter their information and assign permissions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457 1
NEW QUESTION # 44
A company purchased cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register. Which of the following strategies does this represent?
- A. Accept
- B. Mitigate
- C. Avoid
- D. Transfer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the financial losses and liabilities that result from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service, phishing, or malware. Cyber insurance can help a company recover from the costs of restoring data, repairing systems, paying ransoms, compensating customers, or facing legal actions. Cyber insurance is one of the possible strategies that a company can use to address the items listed on the risk register. A risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their probability, impact, and mitigation strategies for a project or an organization. The four common risk mitigation strategies are:
Accept: The company acknowledges the risk and decides to accept the consequences without taking any action to reduce or eliminate the risk. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high.
Transfer: The company transfers the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is high or the company lacks the resources or expertise to handle the risk.
Mitigate: The company implements controls or measures to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk.
This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is moderate or the cost of mitigation is reasonable.
Avoid: The company eliminates the risk by changing the scope, plan, or design of the project or the organization. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is unacceptable or the cost of mitigation is too high.
By purchasing cyber insurance, the company is transferring the risk to the insurance company, which will cover the financial losses and liabilities in case of a cyberattack. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
Transfer. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 377. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.1: Risk Management, video: Risk Mitigation Strategies (5:37).
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following would be best suited for constantly changing environments?
- A. Embedded systems
- B. Containers
- C. RTOS
- D. SCADA
Answer: B
Explanation:
Containers are a method of virtualization that allows applications to run in isolated environments with their own dependencies, libraries, and configurations. Containers are best suited for constantly changing environments because they are lightweight, portable, scalable, and easy to deploy and update. Containers can also support microservices architectures, which enable faster and more frequent delivery of software features. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 512 1
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?
- A. Supply chain analysis
- B. Due diligence
- C. Rules of engagement
- D. Right to audit clause
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure thatthe test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:
* The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.
* The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.
* The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.
* The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.
* The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.
* The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.
* The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.
Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions.
Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.
References =https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of-engageme
https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing
NEW QUESTION # 47
A company prevented direct access from the database administrators' workstations to the network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following should a database administrator use to access the database servers?
- A. HSM
- B. Load balancer
- C. Jump server
- D. RADIUS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user's workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user's workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.
RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34.
HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5 .
A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them . References = How to access a remote server using a jump host Jump server RADIUS Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) Hardware Security Module (HSM)
[What is an HSM?]
[Load balancing (computing)]
[What is Load Balancing?]
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following vulnerabilities is exploited when an attacker overwrites a register with a malicious address?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Buffer overflow
- C. Race condition
- D. VM escape
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 49
A company is required to use certified hardware when building networks. Which of the following best addresses the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware?
- A. A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs
- B. A thorough analysis of the supply chain
- C. A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy
- D. An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM). It can pose serious risks to network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12. Counterfeit hardware can also contain malicious components that can compromise the security of the network and the data that flows through it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrity of the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the supply chain can include the following steps:
Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agencies References = 1: Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products - Cisco, 2: What Is Hardware Security? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices, 3: Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld, : Counterfeit Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It
NEW QUESTION # 50
A systems administrator receives the following alert from a file integrity monitoring tool:
The hash of the cmd.exe file has changed.
The systems administrator checks the OS logs and notices that no patches were applied in the last two months.
Which of the following most likely occurred?
- A. The end user changed the file permissions.
- B. A snapshot of the file system was taken.
- C. A rootkit was deployed.
- D. A cryptographic collision was detected.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A rootkit is a type of malware that modifies or replaces system files or processes to hide its presence and activity. A rootkit can change the hash of the cmd.exe file, which is a command-line interpreter for Windows systems, to avoid detection by antivirus or file integrity monitoring tools. A rootkit can also grant the attacker remote access and control over the infected system, as well as perform malicious actions such as stealing data, installing backdoors, or launching attacks on other systems. A rootkit is one of the most difficult types of malware to remove, as it can persist even after rebooting or reinstalling the OS. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page
147. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 9.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Several employees received a fraudulent text message from someone claiming to be the Chief Executive Officer (CEO). The message stated:
"I'm in an airport right now with no access to email. I need you to buy gift cards for employee recognition awards. Please send the gift cards to following email address." Which of the following are the best responses to this situation? (Choose two).
- A. Cancel current employee recognition gift cards.
- B. Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training.
- C. Conduct a forensic investigation on the CEO's phone.
- D. Issue a general email warning to the company.
- E. Have the CEO change phone numbers.
- F. Implement mobile device management.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Explanation
This situation is an example of smishing, which is a type of phishing that uses text messages (SMS) to entice individuals into providing personal or sensitive information to cybercriminals. The best responses to this situation are to add a smishing exercise to the annual company training and to issue a general email warning to the company. A smishing exercise can help raise awareness and educate employees on how to recognize and avoid smishing attacks. An email warning can alert employees to the fraudulent text message and remind them to verify the identity and legitimacy of any requests for information or money. References = What Is Phishing | Cybersecurity | CompTIA, Phishing - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following factors are the most important to address when formulating a training curriculum plan for a security awareness program? (Select two).
- A. Cadence and duration of training events
- B. Retraining requirements for individuals who fail phishing simulations
- C. Threat vectors based on the industry in which the organization operates
- D. Channels by which the organization communicates with customers
- E. The reporting mechanisms for ethics violations
- F. Secure software development training for all personnel
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A training curriculum plan for a security awareness program should address the following factors:
The threat vectors based on the industry in which the organization operates. This will help the employees to understand the specific risks and challenges that their organization faces, and how to protect themselves and the organization from cyberattacks. Forexample, a healthcare organization may face different threat vectors than a financial organization, such as ransomware, data breaches, or medical device hacking1.
The cadence and duration of training events. This will help the employees to retain the information and skills they learn, and to keep up with the changing security landscape. The training events should be frequent enough to reinforce the key concepts and behaviors, but not too long or too short to lose the attention or interest of the employees. For example, a security awareness program may include monthly newsletters, quarterly webinars, annual workshops, or periodic quizzes2.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 34; CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, page 55.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?
- A. SOW
- B. MOA
- C. SLA
- D. MOU
Answer: C
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.
References:
Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under "About the exam", bullet point 3:
"Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance." CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: "Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider."
NEW QUESTION # 54
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