Valid 312-50v13 Test Answers & ECCouncil 312-50v13 Exam PDF
ECCouncil 312-50v13 Certification Real 2026 Mock Exam
NEW QUESTION # 103
Allen, a professional pen tester, was hired by XpertTech Solutions to perform an attack simulation on the organization's network resources. To perform the attack, he took advantage of the NetBIOS API and targeted the NetBIOS service. By enumerating NetBIOS, he found that port 139 was open and could see the resources that could be accessed or viewed on a remote system. He came across many NetBIOS codes during enumeration. Identify the NetBIOS code used for obtaining the messenger service running for the logged-in user?
- A. <20>
- B. <1B>
- C. <00>
- D. <03>
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 104
If a token and 4-digit personal identification number (PIN) are used to access a computer system and the token performs off-line checking for the correct PIN, what type of attack is possible?
- A. Birthday
- B. Man-in-the-middle
- C. Smurf
- D. Brute force
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 105
You went to great lengths to install all the necessary technologies to prevent hacking attacks, such as expensive firewalls, antivirus software, anti-spam systems, and intrusion detection/prevention tools in your company's network. You are confident that hackers will never be able to gain access. Your peer, Peter Smith, disagrees and says the presence of a "weakest link" still exposes the network.
What is Peter Smith talking about?
- A. Untrained staff or ignorant computer users who inadvertently become the weakest link in your security chain
- B. Continuous spam emails cannot be blocked by your security system since spammers use different techniques to bypass filters
- C. "Zero-day" exploits are the weakest link in the security chain since IDS will not be able to detect these attacks
- D. "Polymorphic viruses" are the weakest link in the security chain since antivirus scanners will not be able to detect these attacks
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The "weakest link" in cybersecurity is almost always the human element. Even with cutting-edge technology and airtight configurations, untrained or careless users can fall for phishing attacks, use weak passwords, or mishandle sensitive data - giving hackers a path into the system.
From CEH v13 Courseware:
Module 7: Social Engineering
Topic: Human Element in Security Breaches
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 7: Insider Threats and Social EngineeringSANS Security Awareness Program - Human Risk Management
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NEW QUESTION # 106
Miley, a professional hacker, decided to attack a target organization's network. To perform the attack, she used a tool to send fake ARP messages over the target network to link her MAC address with the target system's IP address. By performing this, Miley received messages directed to the victim's MAC address and further used the tool to intercept, steal, modify, and block sensitive communication to the target system. What is the tool employed by Miley to perform the above attack?
- A. BetterCAP
- B. KDerpNSpoof
- C. Wireshark
- D. Gobbler
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 107
What does AXFR allow?
- A. Encryption
- B. Zone transfer
- C. Resolution
- D. DNS tunneling
Answer: B
Explanation:
AXFR is a DNS protocol operation used for full zone transfers between DNS servers. It allows replication of DNS zone data from a primary server to a secondary server.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Study the Snort rule given below:
[Image shows two Snort rules with alert messages for NETBIOS DCERPC ISystemActivator bind attempt, targeting TCP ports 135 and 445. References include CVE: CAN-2003-0352.]
- A. SQL Slammer
- B. WebDav
- C. MyDoom
- D. MS Blaster
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Snort rule in the image is detecting suspicious bind attempts over DCERPC (Distributed Computing Environment/Remote Procedure Call), specifically targeting ports 135 (RPC) and 445 (SMB) with crafted content. The rule references CVE CAN-2003-0352.
CVE-2003-0352 is associated with the DCOM RPC vulnerability in Microsoft Windows that was exploited by the MS Blaster (also known as Lovsan) worm in 2003.
Key Indicators from the Snort Rule:
alert tcp $EXTERNAL_NET any -> $HOME_NET 135
content includes DCERPC binding pattern (|05| and |0b| with specific binary patterns) Reference to CVE-2003-0352 Class type: attempted-admin The MS Blaster worm exploited this vulnerability by sending a specially crafted RPC request to port 135, allowing remote code execution.
From CEH v13 Courseware:
Module 6: Malware Threats
Module 11: Session Hijacking
Discussion of historic worms and their exploit signatures, including MS Blaster.
Incorrect Options:
A). WebDav: Typically uses HTTP/HTTPS and was exploited by Nimda.
B). SQL Slammer: Targeted UDP port 1434 (SQL Server), not TCP 135/445.
D). MyDoom: Spread via email and exploited Windows file-sharing mechanisms (port 3127), not DCERPC.
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 6: Malware Threats # Classic Worm AttacksCVE Details:
https://cve.mitre.org/cgi-bin/cvename.cgi?name=CVE-2003-0352Microsoft Security Bulletin MS03-026 - RPC Vulnerability
NEW QUESTION # 109
During a UDP service enumeration scan, the tester sees that some ports respond with ICMP Type 3 Code 3 (Port Unreachable), while most remain silent. No firewall or IDS is interfering. What can the tester conclude about the non-responsive ports?
- A. They may be open or filtered, requiring retransmission.
- B. The ports are likely closed because no ICMP response was received.
- C. They may correspond to some services requiring three-way handshakes.
- D. The system blocked all probes after rate-limiting was detected.
Answer: A
Explanation:
UDP scanning produces reliable "closed" results only when an ICMP Port Unreachable is returned. Silent responses indicate either open ports (no reply expected) or filtered ports (blocks dropping packets). CEH emphasizes that non-responses require retransmission or alternate verification techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 110
Attackers exploit SMBv1 to spread malware across hosts. What attack behavior is this?
- A. Phishing
- B. DoS
- C. Credential stuffing
- D. Worm-like propagation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Worm-like propagation occurs when malware automatically spreads from one host to another across a network by exploiting vulnerabilities such as SMBv1, without requiring user interaction.
NEW QUESTION # 111
What is the port to block first in case you are suspicious that an IoT device has been compromised?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 112
During a penetration test at a logistics company in Atlanta, Georgia, you examine the configuration of network devices and discover that they rely on legacy communication mechanisms lacking encryption and integrity checks. These mechanisms allow neighboring systems to exchange operational data without verification, exposing the infrastructure to potential manipulation. What type of vulnerability is most clearly present?
- A. Lack of authentication
- B. Insecure routing protocols
- C. Firewall vulnerabilities
- D. Lack of password protection
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is D. Insecure routing protocols because the scenario describes legacy neighbor-to-neighbor device communications that lack encryption and integrity validation, allowing operational routing data to be exchanged without verification. In CEH-aligned network hacking concepts, this is a classic weakness of older or improperly secured routing protocols (and related network control-plane exchanges) where routers trust updates from neighbors and do not cryptographically validate the authenticity and integrity of routing information.
When routing updates are accepted without strong verification, an attacker who can position themselves on the same segment (or spoof a trusted neighbor) may inject or manipulate routing information. This can enable attacks such as route injection, route poisoning, man-in-the-middle (MITM) traffic redirection, blackholing traffic, or causing instability/denial of service by continuously advertising bad routes. The mention of
"neighboring systems" and "operational data" strongly maps to routing adjacencies where devices exchange reachability and topology information. The absence of integrity checks makes it feasible to alter routing messages in transit or forge them, and the absence of encryption can expose routing details that further assists reconnaissance and targeted manipulation.
Why the other options are less accurate:
Firewall vulnerabilities relate to filtering and policy enforcement, but the core issue here is the trust model and protection of routing/control messages, not firewall rule flaws.
Lack of password protection is too generic and typically refers to weak/no credentials on management access, not unauthenticated routing exchanges.
Lack of authentication is conceptually related, but the question asks for the type of vulnerability most clearly present given "legacy communication mechanisms" between neighbors carrying operational data-this is most specifically categorized in CEH terms as insecure routing protocols (i.e., routing updates lacking authentication/integrity and sometimes encryption).
In practice, organizations mitigate this by enabling routing protocol authentication (where supported), using cryptographic integrity protections, restricting routing adjacencies, and segmenting or filtering routing/control- plane traffic to trusted peers only.
NEW QUESTION # 113
Attackers persisted by modifying legitimate system utilities and services. What key step helps prevent similar threats?
- A. Weekly off-site backups
- B. Update antivirus and firewalls
- C. Disable unused ports
- D. Monitor file hashes of sensitive executables
Answer: D
Explanation:
This scenario describes Living-off-the-Land (LotL) malware techniques, where attackers modify or abuse legitimate system binaries and services to evade detection. CEH v13 identifies this as a highly stealthy persistence mechanism commonly used in advanced persistent threats (APTs).
The most effective countermeasure is file integrity monitoring (FIM), specifically by tracking cryptographic hashes of critical system executables. CEH v13 emphasizes that monitoring file hashes enables early detection of unauthorized modifications to binaries such as PowerShell, cmd.exe, or Windows services.
Backups (Option A) aid recovery but do not prevent or detect compromise. Antivirus updates (Option C) often fail against modified legitimate tools. Firewall hardening (Option D) reduces attack surface but does not detect tampering of trusted binaries.
CEH v13 explicitly recommends hash-based integrity verification as a core defense against stealthy persistence mechanisms. Therefore, option B is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 114
An energy infrastructure company in Tulsa, Oklahoma initiated a controlled phishing simulation targeting multiple operational departments.
The test email claimed to originate from the corporate compliance office and instructed employees to
"complete a mandatory regulatory update within the next 30 minutes to avoid account suspension." The message used a broad salutation instead of employee names and lacked the standard corporate signature footer normally appended to official communications.
Additionally, security analysts observed that the embedded hyperlink displayed the organization's domain in the message body; however, when examined more closely, the actual destination resolved to a shortened external URL redirecting to an unrelated host.
From a defensive analysis standpoint, which indicator provides the strongest technical validation that the message is malicious?
- A. BThe correct answer is B. Identification of Hover-Mismatch URLs in the Embedded Link.The strongest technical indicator is that the visible link text displays the organization's domain, but the real destination points to a shortened external URL and then redirects to an unrelated host. This is a strong phishing indicator because it proves that the link presented to the user does not match the actual destination.CEH-aligned social engineering material explains that phishing emails often appear legitimate and entice users to click a link that redirects them to a fake webpage or malicious destination
. In this scenario, the hover-mismatch URL provides direct technical evidence of deception.Option A is incorrect because urgency language is suspicious, but it is a behavioral/social cue rather than the strongest technical proof.Option C is incorrect because a missing signature may be suspicious but can also result from formatting or template issues.Option D is incorrect because generic greetings are common phishing indicators, but they are less technically conclusive than a mismatched URL.
Therefore, the best answer is B. Identification of Hover-Mismatch URLs in the Embedded Link. - B. Identification of Hover-Mismatch URLs in the Embedded Link
- C. Use of Generic Greetings Rather than Individualized Addressing
- D. Absence of a Formal Corporate Signature
- E. Presence of Aggressive Urgency Language
Answer: A,B,C,D,E
NEW QUESTION # 115
During a security assessment for an e-commerce company in Boston, Massachusetts, your team conducts a reconnaissance phase to identify potential entry points into the organization ' s communication infrastructure.
You focus on gathering details about the systems responsible for handling incoming email traffic, avoiding active network probing, and relying on passive DNS data collection. Given this objective, which DNS record type should you query to extract information about the target's mail server configuration?
- A. NS
- B. MX
- C. SOA
- D. TXT
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is MX. CEH reconnaissance material explains that MX, or Mail Exchange, records identify the mail servers responsible for receiving email for a domain. When a tester wants to understand how an organization handles incoming email traffic, MX records are the most relevant DNS data source because they reveal the designated mail infrastructure and often the priority order of mail servers. In this scenario, the objective is to gather passive intelligence about communication infrastructure without performing active network probing, so querying DNS records is appropriate. SOA records provide domain authority and zone administration information, TXT records often contain verification or policy-related text such as SPF details, and NS records identify authoritative name servers. While those can all contribute to broader reconnaissance, they do not directly answer which systems are responsible for receiving mail. CEH emphasizes that MX records are commonly used during footprinting to identify email infrastructure, support phishing simulations, analyze third-party mail providers, or map communication dependencies. Because the question explicitly asks for the DNS record type that reveals mail server configuration, MX is the correct choice.
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which of the following incident handling process phases is responsible for defining rules, collaborating human workforce, creating a back-up plan, and testing the plans for an organization?
- A. Identification phase
- B. Recovery phase
- C. Containment phase
- D. Preparation phase
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 117
During a red team operation for XYZ Financial Services, security analyst Lily Jensen is assigned to scan a critical subnet that is protected by an IDS. Her initial scan attempt is immediately flagged and blocked. To evade detection while continuing reconnaissance, she adjusts the scanning configuration to include multiple spoofed IP addresses alongside her own. This makes it difficult for network defenses to isolate her real scanning activity, while still allowing her to receive accurate results. Which scanning technique is Lily using?
- A. SYN/FIN Scanning
- B. Source Routing
- C. Decoy Scanning
- D. IP Spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Lily uses multiple fake sources in addition to her own IP to mask the origin of the scan, making it harder for the IDS to identify the true attacker while still obtaining scan results. This approach is characteristic of decoy scanning, which leverages decoy IP addresses to evade detection.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Roma is a member of a security team. She was tasked with protecting the internal network of an organization from imminent threats. To accomplish this task, Roma fed threat intelligence into the security devices in a digital format to block and identify inbound and outbound malicious traffic entering the organization's network.
Which type of threat intelligence is used by Roma to secure the internal network?
- A. Strategic threat intelligence
- B. Operational threat intelligence
- C. Tactical threat intelligence
- D. Technical threat intelligence
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 119
Study the Snort rule given below:
[Image shows two Snort rules with alert messages for NETBIOS DCERPC ISystemActivator bind attempt, targeting TCP ports 135 and 445. References include CVE: CAN-2003-0352.]
- A. SQL Slammer
- B. WebDav
- C. MyDoom
- D. MS Blaster
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Snort rule in the image is detecting suspicious bind attempts over DCERPC (Distributed Computing Environment/Remote Procedure Call), specifically targeting ports 135 (RPC) and 445 (SMB) with crafted content. The rule references CVE CAN-2003-0352.
CVE-2003-0352 is associated with the DCOM RPC vulnerability in Microsoft Windows that was exploited by the MS Blaster (also known as Lovsan) worm in 2003.
Key Indicators from the Snort Rule:
alert tcp $EXTERNAL_NET any -> $HOME_NET 135
content includes DCERPC binding pattern (|05| and |0b| with specific binary patterns) Reference to CVE-2003-0352 Class type: attempted-admin The MS Blaster worm exploited this vulnerability by sending a specially crafted RPC request to port 135, allowing remote code execution.
From CEH v13 Courseware:
Module 6: Malware Threats
Module 11: Session Hijacking
Discussion of historic worms and their exploit signatures, including MS Blaster.
Incorrect Options:
A). WebDav: Typically uses HTTP/HTTPS and was exploited by Nimda.
B). SQL Slammer: Targeted UDP port 1434 (SQL Server), not TCP 135/445.
D). MyDoom: Spread via email and exploited Windows file-sharing mechanisms (port 3127), not DCERPC.
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 6: Malware Threats # Classic Worm AttacksCVE Details:
https://cve.mitre.org/cgi-bin/cvename.cgi?name=CVE-2003-0352Microsoft Security Bulletin MS03-026 - RPC Vulnerability
NEW QUESTION # 120
Harris is attempting to identify the OS running on his target machine. He inspected the initial TTL in the IP header and the related TCP window size and obtained the following results:
TTL: 64
Window Size: 5840
What the OS running on the target machine?
- A. Windows OS
- B. Solaris OS
- C. Linux OS
- D. Mac OS
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 121
As a cybersecurity analyst working for a multinational corporation, you are tasked with the responsibility of conducting routine vulnerability scans. This time around, you decided to use a different strategy and opted to employ a FIN scan, which is a type of stealth scanning technique.
Upon conclusion of your scan, you notice an interesting anomaly - a significant number of ports did not respond to your FIN packets. With this unexpected result, you are now faced with the challenge of correctly interpreting the findings and planning the next course of action. Based on your understanding of FIN scanning and TCP/IP protocols, how should you interpret these findings?
- A. Consider the possibility of firewall blocking the FIN packets and investigate further.
- B. Immediately escalate this issue to management as it indicates a potential ongoing breach.
- C. Interpret this as a sign of network congestion and prioritize network optimization.
- D. Conclude that these ports are closed since they did not respond to the FIN packets.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a FIN scan, open ports typically do not respond, while closed ports send a reset. A lack of response from many ports can also indicate that a firewall or filtering device is blocking the FIN packets, requiring further investigation to distinguish between open and filtered ports.
NEW QUESTION # 122
A penetration tester performs a vulnerability scan on a company's web server and identifies several medium-risk vulnerabilities related to misconfigured settings. What should the tester do to verify the vulnerabilities?
- A. Use publicly available tools to exploit the vulnerabilities and confirm their impact
- B. Ignore the vulnerabilities since they are medium-risk
- C. Perform a brute-force attack on the web server's login page
- D. Conduct a denial-of-service (DoS) attack to test the server's resilience
Answer: A
Explanation:
After identifying vulnerabilities through scanning, the correct approach is to validate them safely.
Using appropriate tools to confirm exploitability and real impact ensures accurate risk assessment without unnecessary disruption.
NEW QUESTION # 123
Jude, a pen tester working in Keiltech Ltd., performs sophisticated security testing on his company's network infrastructure to identify security loopholes. In this process, he started to circumvent the network protection tools and firewalls used in the company. He employed a technique that can create forged TCP sessions by carrying out multiple SYN, ACK, and RST or FIN packets. Further, this process allowed Jude to execute DDoS attacks that can exhaust the network resources. What is the attack technique used by Jude for finding loopholes in the above scenario?
- A. Ping-of-death attack
- B. UDP flood attack
- C. Peer-to-peer attack
- D. Spoofed session flood attack
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 124
During a stealth penetration test for a multinational shipping company, ethical hacker Daniel Reyes gains local access to an engineering workstation and deploys a specialized payload that installs below the operating system. On subsequent reboots, the payload executes before any system-level drivers or services are active, giving Daniel covert control over the machine without triggering antivirus or endpoint detection tools. Weeks later, system administrators report suspicious network activity, but repeated forensic scans fail to locate any malicious processes or user-level traces. Which type of rootkit did Daniel most likely use to maintain this level of stealth and persistence?
- A. Firmware Rootkit
- B. Hypervisor Rootkit
- C. Kernel-mode Rootkit
- D. Bootkit
Answer: D
Explanation:
The payload executes before the operating system and its drivers load, indicating it is embedded in the boot process. This behavior is characteristic of a bootkit, which infects the boot sequence to gain early execution and maintain stealthy persistence.
NEW QUESTION # 125
You are Riley, an incident responder at NovaEx Crypto in San Antonio, Texas, tasked with investigating a recent double-spend reported by a retail merchant that accepts the exchange's token. Your telemetry shows that a reseller node used by the merchant received blocks only from a small, fixed set of peers for several hours and accepted a conflicting history that later allowed the attacker to reverse a confirmed payment. The attacker appears to have controlled which peers that node communicated with and supplied it a private chain until they were ready to reveal it. Which blockchain attack does this behavior most closely describe?
- A. Finney Attack
- B. DeFi Sandwich Attack
- C. Eclipse Attack
- D. 51% Attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
The behavior described most closely matches an Eclipse attack. In an eclipse attack, an adversary isolates a victim node by controlling its peer connections so that the node communicates only with attacker-controlled (or attacker-influenced) peers. Once isolated, the attacker can feed the victim a manipulated view of the blockchain-such as withholding blocks, delaying transactions, or presenting an alternative chain history.
This can enable downstream impacts like double-spending against merchants who rely on that node's view for confirmation.
The scenario's strongest indicators are:
The node "received blocks only from a small, fixed set of peers for several hours," suggesting abnormal peer diversity and potential isolation.
The attacker "controlled which peers that node communicated with," which is essentially the definition of eclipsing a node.
The node "accepted a conflicting history" and the attacker supplied "a private chain until they were ready to reveal it," consistent with feeding the victim a tailored chain view and then releasing/realigning it to profit from reversed payments.
Why the other options are less fitting:
A Finney attack (A) involves a miner pre-mining a block containing a spend, making a payment to a merchant, and then releasing the pre-mined block to invalidate the merchant's transaction-this doesn't require isolating a specific node's peers for hours.
A DeFi sandwich attack (B) is a mempool/MEV tactic on decentralized exchanges involving front-running and back-running, unrelated to isolating node peer connections or feeding a private chain.
A 51% attack (C) involves controlling a majority of network hash power/stake to rewrite history at network scale. The scenario emphasizes isolation of a particular merchant-related node via peer control rather than majority network control.
Therefore, the attack is best identified as D. Eclipse Attack.
NEW QUESTION # 126
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